Show that the expression $\frac{(ax-b)(dx-c)}{(bx-a)(cx-d)}\\$ will be capable of all values when x is real, if $a^2-b^2$ and $c^2-d^2$ have the same sign.
Here's my approach:
I tried equating it with y which formed another Quadratic Equation, then after computing the Discriminant, here's what I got. If x is real, we must have $(ac+bd)^2(1-y)^2-4(ad-bcy)(bc-ady)$ positive I am stuck after that. Though I have the solution but it doesn't seem satisfactory.
A detailed answer would be helpful.
For reference this question is from Hall and Knight Higher Algebra, Ch-9, Examples 9B Q14.
