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Let $g(x) = f(x) + ih(x)$. Here, $x$ is real, so the function takes a real number and spits out a complex number.

A book I am reading says that if $\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-ix} g(x) dx$ is a real number, then $f(x)$ is even, and $h(x)$ is odd.

Why is this true?

The book further says that this can be used to write$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-ix} g(x) dx = 2\int_0^\infty e^{-ix}g(x) dx$$

Why is this true?

  • Are you sure it doesn't say something like "if $\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-ikx} g(x) dx$ is real for all real $k$" – WW1 Oct 05 '19 at 01:19

1 Answers1

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Note

$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-ix} g(x) dx= $$ $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty( [\cos(x) f(x) + \sin(x)h(x) ]-i[\sin(x) f(x) -\cos(x)h(x)] )dx$$

If $f(x)$ is even and $h(x)$ odd, the imaginary part of the integrand

$$\sin(x) f(x) -\cos(x)h(x)$$

is odd as a whole and its integration over $(-\infty, \infty)$ vanishes. Hence, the overall integral is real.

Furthermore, the real part of the integrand is even, and its integral can then be written as two times of its integral over $(0, \infty)$.

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