In our exercise a locally finite set A is a set such that $A \cap B(r)$ is a finite set for all $r \geq 0$, where $B(r)$ is the ball centered at $0$ and has radius $r$. Shouldn't conv($A$) then be bounded?
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2Seems to me that you can take point in different direction such that distance form origin is +1 each next point. – kolobokish Oct 06 '19 at 09:40
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Consider $A=\mathbb{Z}^n$. Then $$\vert A \cap B(r)\vert \leq (2r)^n <\infty.$$ But surely the convex hull of $A$ is all of $\mathbb{R}^n$.
Severin Schraven
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