The question I got on my exam was $$\text{If}\;a > 0 \;\text{then}\; (b > 0 \Leftrightarrow ab > 0) $$ The answer I put was "recall the mutiplication rule from the inequality axioms of real numbers". I will put it for reference.
$$a < b \Leftrightarrow ac < bc \;\text{if}\; c > 0 $$ $$a < b \Leftrightarrow ac > bc \;\text{if}\; c < 0 $$ Proof:
This is a direct consequence of the multiplication law.
If $b>0$ then if $0 < a \implies ab > 0 $ by the multiplication axiom given.
Similarly, if $ ab > 0$ and if $a > 0 \implies b > 0$ by the multiplication axiom again.
I am failing to see how is not a simple proof by using the definition of axiom for this problem. Apparently my professor gave me no points at all for this question and just simply said this is not a proof.
Also I will like to see why this solution is not a proof either:
$$\text{If}\; x \neq 0 \;\text{then}\; x^2 > 0$$
Proof:
If $x \neq 0 $ then x is a positive real number or x is a negative real number
Case 1 : x is positive
then by definition of posistive
$$0 < x \Leftrightarrow 0 < x * x = x^2 $$ if $x > 0$ (By multiplication axiom given)
Case 2: x is negative then by definition of negative $$x < 0 \Leftrightarrow x * x = x^2 > 0 $$ ( By the multiplication axiom again) if $x < 0$
So in both cases $0 < x^2$ and $x^2 > 0$. I am failing to see how these are not correct proofs to these problems when I am simply using the definitions of axioms given. All the variables are for real numbers btw.