I am considering a function $f(x,y)$ with all the appropriate assumptions so that what comes next is well defined. I think we have the equivalence: $$\mathrm{d}f=\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\mathrm{d}x+\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\mathrm{d}y=0\Leftrightarrow \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}=0$$ What is the exact mathematical argument behind this? How should the quantities $\mathrm{d}x$ and $\mathrm{d}y$ be treated?
-
The RHS implies that function is constant, i.e. $f(x,y) = f_o,;$ and this is consistent with the LHS. However, the LHS being true does not imply the RHS. – greg Oct 10 '19 at 19:15
2 Answers
You have to understand the real nature of $df, dx$ and $dy$, and to be precise in your statement.
First of all, you have to understand that $df$ is the differential at a point $(x_0,y_0)\in\mathbb{R}^2$, so at least you should write
$df= \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(x_0,y_0)\mathrm{d}x+\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(x_0,y_0)\mathrm{d}y$.
Now $df,dx$ and $dy$ are linear forms on $\mathbb{R}^2$.
The notation $dx$ denotes the linear from $(h,k)\in\mathbb{R}^2\mapsto h\in\mathbb{R}$, while $dy$ is the linear form $(h,k)\in\mathbb{R}^2\mapsto k\in\mathbb{R}$.
Then $df$ is a linear combination of the linear forms $dx$ and $dy$. It is easy to check that $dx$ and $dy$ are linearly independant. In particular, if $df=0$, it is equivalent taht the coefficients of the combinations are both $0$.
If you prefer a direct argument (which amounts to what I said previously), we may rewrite the equality as follows:
$$df(h,k)=\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(x_0,y_0)h+\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(x_0,y_0)k=0$$ for all $(h,k)\in\mathbb{R}^2$.
Setting $(h,k)=(1,0)$, then $(h,k)=(0,1)$ yields the desired equivalence.
- 15,028
Paritial answer: Your equivalence is not true in general.
Let´s say $f(x,y)=x^{0.5}\cdot y^{0.5} \ \ \forall x,y>0$, Then we have the partial derivatives
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}=0.5\cdot x^{-0.5}\cdot y^{0.5}, \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}=0.5\cdot x^{0.5}\cdot y^{-0.5} $$
Let us inspect the point at $x=y=1$
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\mathrm{d}x+\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\mathrm{d}y=0\Rightarrow 0.5dx+0.5dy=0\Rightarrow \boxed{dx=-dy}$$
So here $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}=0.5\neq 0$.
And for $dx$ and $dy$ there are several combinations possible.
- 30,550
-
Why the downvote? Can you please leave a comment if the reason is not obvious. – callculus42 Oct 09 '19 at 15:11
-
1
-
1.. but I think the arbitrariness of $\mathrm{d}x$ and $\mathrm{d}y$ is missing in your argument. – pluton Oct 09 '19 at 16:09
-
@pluton Thanks for the comment. What should statement should I add? I`m not sure. – callculus42 Oct 09 '19 at 16:34