This is a textbook example and I am confused about the explanation. This question was asked by different people in stack-exchange already but I couldn't find the solution to my question.
Here's the problem:
At a party $n$ man take their hats. The hats are then mixed up and each man randomly selects one. We say that a match occurs if a man selects his own hat. What is the probability of no matches? What is the probability of exactly $k$ matches?
Solution (summarized):
$P_n = P(E) =$ the event that no matches occur, dependence on $n$,
$M =$ first man selects his own hat
$M^c=$ first man does not select his own hat
So, $P_n = P(E) = P(E|M)P(M) + P(E|M^c)P(M^c)$
Since $P(E|M) = 0$, we get $P(E)=P(E|M^c)* \frac{n-1}{n}$
Here's my question:
the solution says $P(E|M^c)$is the probability of no matches when $(n−1)$ men select from a set of $n − 1$ hats that does not contain the hat of one of these men. This can happen in either of two mutually exclusive ways. Either there are no matches and the extra man does not select the extra hat (this being the hat of the man that chose first), or there are no matches and the extra man does select the extra hat. Therefore, we get $P(E|M^c)= P(E|M^c)=P_{n−1}+ \frac{1}{n-1}*P_{n−2}$
What does the bolded part exactly mean?
Who is the extra man? Is he the last person to choose the hat?
If so, if the extra man does select the extra hat, shouldn't the probability of no matches be $0$.
Can we do this question in a different way? like setting $X_i=$ the $i^{th}$ person selecting his hat, and the probability of no matches will be $P(\sum_{i=1}^n X_i = 0)$