I'm reading up about the more general definition of directional derivatives, but still in the context of $\mathbb{R}^n$. It goes like this:
Let $f:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}$ be a real-valued function on the manifold $\mathbb{R}^n$ and let $v_p$ be a vector tangent to manifold $\mathbb{R}^n$ at point $p$, that is, $v_p\in T_p(\mathbb{R}^n)$. The number $$v_p[f]\equiv\frac{d}{dt}\big(f(p+tv_p\big)\bigg|_{t=0}$$ is called the directional derivative of $f$ w.r.t. $v_p$, if it exists.
Immediately after that there's an exercise:
Let $v=[2,-1,3]^T$ and $p=(2,0,-1)$. Find $v_p[f]$ where:
a) $f(x)=x$
b) $f(x)=x^2-x$
c) $f(x)=\cos(x)$
I'm a bit confused. Isn't the $v_p$ operator supposed to act on a $\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{R}$ function in this case? I was under the impression that if we have an $n$-dimensional manifold and a "well-behaved" point $p$ in it such that the tangent space $T_p(M)$ is also $n$-dimensional, then the operator $v_p$ acts on $\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}$ functions. The above seem like $\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$. Am I missing something?