In here the Laplacian $u_{xx}+u_{yy}$ is said to:
The Laplacian measures the degree by which the value at a point differs from the average of its neighbors.
whereas here the intuition departs from a more stringent set up: there is a scalar-valued function $f(x,y),$ from which the Laplacian is defined as the divergence of the gradient, $\nabla\cdot\nabla f.$ The intuition is:
A measure of how much of a minimum a point is in a scalar valued multivariate function.
The question is where the average appears in the first interpretation - is it truly the average as understood in statistics? Because the second derivative in different directions seems to directly speak about the curvature of the graph - there is no averaging.
And is the gradient also implied in the first interpretation? Or there is no real need for a gradient to understand the Laplacian?