I have some doubts about a statement from class:
Let $\mathbb{R}^\omega$ be the countable product of $\mathbb{R}$. Equip $\mathbb{R}^\omega$ with the scalar product $\sum_{k = 1}^\infty x_i y_i$ and the induced norm. We identify $\mathbb{R}^n$ with the space generated by the first $n$ coordinates. Let $S^\infty = \bigcup_n S^n \subset \mathbb{R}^\omega$ ($S^n$ being the unit sphere in $\mathbb{R}^n$) and let $B^\infty = \{(x_k)_{k \in \mathbb{N}} \mid \sum_{k = 1}^\infty x_k^2 = 1\}$. Show that we can identify $S^\infty$ with $B^\infty$.
What bothers me about this question is that clearly $S^\infty \subset B^\infty$. However, I could take the sequence $(0, \frac{\sqrt{6}}{\pi} \frac{1}{1}, \frac{\sqrt{6}}{\pi} \frac{1}{2}, \frac{\sqrt{6}}{\pi} \frac{1}{3} , \dotsc)$. This sequence has norm $1$ under the assumptions in the statement. But the sequence also has infinitely many non-zero elements. So how can it be in on of the $S^\infty$?