I am reading a book by Donald Saari on mathematical finance. I am trying to understand the intuition behind modelling the rate of change of the stock price $S$ (excluding randomness for the moment) as
$\Delta S = \mu S \Delta t$ (eq.1) ($\mu$ is a constant)
For other physical phenomena, such as modelling the rate of change of temperature, I understand that one could try imagine that the rate of change of temperature depending on some forcing function $G(T)$ and then Taylor expanding as follows
$\Delta T = G(T) \Delta t = \mu (T-T^*)\Delta t$, say to $O(T-T^*)$
I can convince myself intuitively that it is not wise (as a first approximation) to include the variable time to model the rate of change of temperature, i.e
$\Delta T = G(T,t) \Delta t$ (is a bad idea)
Thinking in terms of 'worst case scenario' by fixing time and then fixing temperature separately.
With stock prices however, I have no intuition as to why (eq.1) holds? Why not instead
$\Delta S = G(S,t) \Delta t$
or even worst
$\Delta S = R(S,t,p) \Delta t$
where $p$ is some form of running average. Could someone explain why (eq.1) holds and why it is truly a leading order approximation?