Say a derivative is differentiable in the interval $x \in [a,b]$
The derivative of the limit at $f(b)$ is $\lim\limits_{x \to b^+}\frac{f(x)-f(b)}{x-b}$
If we can show that $\lim\limits_{x \to b^+}f(x)-f(b)$ and $\lim\limits_{x \to b^+}x-b$ both converges to $0$ from above, then is $f'(b)\geq 0$?