so I am having a problem understanding finding solution to that equation:
$$x'' +w^2 x =f sin ω t$$
with initial conditions x(0)=0 and x'(0)=0. I know that is an explanation of how to solve that:
I had to make the euler formula substitution and then multiply it by t . Ostensibly, this is because the the particular solution ansatz for fsintwt has a term(s) the same as the homogeneous solution. Hence Yp=Cte^(iwt). So, presumably, any g(t) ansatz that gives terms the same as the homogeneous solution must be adjusted accordingly? Was there some simpler way to solve this problem that I over looked? Please excuse any terminology errors in the preceding.
And
f≠0. This is the case of resonance, so you need to multiply your ansatz by t. So for the particular solution, you need to try $x=Atsinωt + Btcosωt$
But I do not understand what they are talking about. What I understand is that the general solution is:
$$C_1 cos\omega t + C_2sin\omega t + x_(particular)$$
where to find x(particular) I need to make cost = x, but then I come to f = 0 when I solve the left side of the equation. What am I doing wrong, not understanding, please help:) I really appreciate help as I spent a good few hours on that one problem, and very very thanks in advance!