I am reading lecture note on real analysis and found following two assertions that I think are true but unable to give formal proofs.
Let $\{\varphi_n\}$ be a orthonormal basis of $L^2(E)$ and $f\in L^2(E)$, then $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left<f,\varphi_n\right>=0.$
Let $\{\varphi_n\}$ be a orthonormal basis of $L^2(A)$ and $\{\phi_n\}$ be a orthonormal basis of $L^2(B).$ Then $\{\varphi_n(x)\cdot \phi_m(y)\}$ is an orthonormal basis of $L^2(A\times B).$
I am very sorry if this question is very basic and thanks for your help in advance.