The problem is actually pretty simple, but because of the double inverse, I got confused on how to properly write the proof. I just want to make sure that What I wrote is actually valid.
proof:
(i)Suppose (x,y)$\in (R^{-1})^{-1}.$ Then by the defn of inverse, (y,x)$\in R^{-1}$. Then by the defn of inverse again, (x,y)$\in R$. Thus, $(R^{-1})^{-1} \subseteq R$.
(ii) Suppose (x,y)$\in R$. Then by the defn of inverse, (y,x) $\in R^{-1}$. Then by the defn of inverse again, (x,y) $\in (R^{-1})^{-1}$. Thus, R $\subseteq (R^{-1})^{-1}$.
Therefore, from (i) and (ii), $(R^{-1})^{-1} = R$.