Is it a coincidence that $$\color{lightgrey}{0.6922\cdots =}\left(\frac 1e\right)^{\frac 1e}\approx \ln 2\color{lightgrey}{=0.6931\cdots}$$ ?
Asked
Active
Viewed 179 times
3
-
I don't know anything having to do with a seemingly unconnected property, but for what it's worth, the two real solutions to $x^x = \ln 2$ are, to a $4$-decimal approximation, $0.4000$ and $0.3366,$ and the average of these two values is $0.3683,$ which is fairly close to $\frac{1}{e} = 0.3679$ $(4$-place approximate value). – Dave L. Renfro Nov 13 '19 at 17:02
-
2In mathematics, as in real life (whatever that means), nothing is ever a coincidence -- at least not when examined sufficiently deeply. – Allawonder Nov 13 '19 at 17:03
-
3I do not believe this to be of any coincidence, nor significance. For example, $$\bigg(\frac13\bigg)^{\frac13}\approx 0.69336$$ is even closer to $\ln 2$. – Andrew Chin Nov 13 '19 at 18:07
1 Answers
3
I'm not sure if this helps, but I have found that the Taylor series for these values end up being quite similar.
$$\ln(1+x)=x-\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{3}-\frac{x^4}{4}+\frac{x^5}{5}-\ldots,$$
$$e^x=1+x+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^4}{4!}+\frac{x^5}{5!}+\ldots\,.$$
$\ln(2)=\ln(1+1)$ and $(\frac{1}{e})^\frac{1}{e}=e^\frac{-1}{e}$.
Therefore,
$$\ln(2)=1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{5}-\ldots,$$
$$\left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^\frac{1}{e}=1-\frac{1}{e}+\frac{1}{2!e^2}-\frac{1}{3!e^3}+\frac{1}{4!e^4}-\frac{1}{5!e^5}+\ldots\,.$$
Gary
- 31,845