Is it correct that the notion of triangulizable manifold (in the sence "homeomorphic to a simplicial complex") is weaker than the notion of a PL-manifold? If yes, why? (eg is it true that a star of vertex in a general triangulizable manifold need not be a ball contrary to the PL case?) And are there sufficient and necessary condition on manifold for two notions being equivalent.
Asked
Active
Viewed 106 times
