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So I have a function

$$ f(x,y) = \frac{xy(x^2-y^2)}{x^2+y^2} $$

I have to define the function at $(0,0)$ so that it is continuous at origin. Is there any general approach we follow in this type of problems? I am not sure but I think Sandwich Theorem has to be applied and some suitable function has to be taken .

  • I am not sure about the answer , please provide with some hint. I am not sure whether I selected the correct function or not – The Learner Nov 26 '19 at 14:20
  • It is obvious that IF the function can be made continuous at the origin, then we need $f(0,0)=0$. For example, if we approach the origin along the $x$-axis we get 0. The harder part is proving that the limit as $(x,y)\to0$ is 0. Your answer does that. Well done! – almagest Nov 26 '19 at 14:25
  • Thanks sir , I am glad I could do that – The Learner Nov 26 '19 at 15:00

3 Answers3

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A possibility is to represent the point $(x,y)$ by a complex number:

$$z = x + j y = \rho e^{j \theta}$$

then

$$ xy = \rho^2 \frac{\sin 2\theta}{2} $$

$$ x^2 - y^2 = \rho^2 (2\cos^2 \theta - 1) $$

$$ x^2 + y^2 = \rho^2$$

And finally:

$$f(x, y) = \frac{xy\,(x^2-y^2)}{x^2+y^2} = f(z) = \rho^2 \frac{\sin2\theta \, (2\cos^2 \theta - 1)}{2} $$

When the point $(x, y)$ tends to $0$, $\rho$ necessarily tends to $0$ and therefore, whatever the value of $\theta$, $f(z) = f(x, y)$ tends to $0$

This method may look overskill for this simple function. The sandwich method proposed by OP works. However, OP was asking for a possible general method. This one often gives good results even in more difficult use cases.

Damien
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Please check out the new answer

$$ |xy(x^2-y^2)| <= |xy||(x^2-y^2)| <= |x||y||x^2+y^2|$$

Now,

$$ |x||y||(x^2+y^2)| = \sqrt(x^2)\sqrt(y^2)|x^2+y^2| <= (\sqrt{(x^2+y^2)})(\sqrt{(x^2+y^2)})|x^2+y^2| $$

The last expression is nothing but $(x^2+y^2)^2$ . Therefore

$$ \frac{ |xy(x^2-y^2)| }{(x^2+y^2)}<=\frac{(x^2+y^2)^2}{(x^2+y^2)} $$

Thus the Sandwich theorem can be applied now

Then, $$-(x^2+y^2) < f(x,y) < (x^2+y^2) $$

And I enforce the limit $(0,0)$ which gives $f(x,y)$ as $0$.

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I don't know whether I am right but if I take the function $(x^2+y^2)$,

Then, $$-(x^2+y^2) < f(x,y) < (x^2+y^2) $$

And I enforce the limit $(0,0)$ which gives $f(x,y)$ as $0$.