Suppose $f$ is a continuous function and $g$ is a bounded function. Is it true true that $f\circ g$ is bounded?
It is to show there exists some $M>0$ such that $\lvert f(g(x))\rvert\leq M$ for all $x$-
Suppose $f$ is a continuous function and $g$ is a bounded function. Is it true true that $f\circ g$ is bounded?
It is to show there exists some $M>0$ such that $\lvert f(g(x))\rvert\leq M$ for all $x$-
In general, no. Consider
\begin{alignat*}{3} g(x)&=\arctan x,&&x\in(-\infty,+\infty),\\ f(x)&=\log\left(\dfrac{\pi^2}{4}-x^2\right)\qquad && x\in(-\pi/2,\pi/2). \end{alignat*}
$g(x)$ is bounded, $f(x)$ is continuous on the given interval. However, $f(g(x))$ is unbounded on $(-\infty,+\infty)$.
Yes, if $|g(x)| \leq C$ for all $x$ then $f$ is bounded on the compact interval $[-C,C]$ so $f\circ g$ is bounded.