I have a function f(x,y) with 2 variables x and y. I calculate the partial derivative and get the following equation $$\frac{\partial f (x,y)}{\partial x}=g(y)=0$$ To solve the problem $$g(y)=a+\frac{b}{log(1+y)}+\frac{c~y}{log(1+y)}=0$$ can I use the partial derivative ?$$\frac{\partial g (y)}{\partial y}=0$$
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Why do you think that derivatives are needed to solve the problem "Find $y$ such that $g(y) = 0$?" – the_candyman Dec 01 '19 at 10:36
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do you propose an analytical method to solve the problem, without the need to use a software – Dec 01 '19 at 11:38
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The equation can be solved by using special functions, or using some numerical method. – the_candyman Dec 01 '19 at 11:53