I have what seems like a very silly argument, but I can't figure out what's wrong with it.
Suppose that I'm trying to calculate $H_1$ of a solid torus $X$ (a torus with its ``interior'' filled in). On the one hand, it's homotopy equivalent to a circle, so $H_1(X) \cong \mathbb Z$.
On the other hand, $H_k(X)$ is isomorphic to $H_k$ of the $(k+1)$-skeleton of $X$, and in this case (letting $k = 1$) that would just be the regular torus; but then $H_1(X) = H_1(T^2) \cong \mathbb Z^2$.
What's going on?