Above mentioned fact is proved, now does the converse (i.e If $F(x)$ is uniformly continuous on $\mathbb R$ then it is Continuous on $\mathbb R$ and $\lim_{x \to \infty} F(x)$ exists) of the above question holds. if not, please provide a counterexample to hold the ground and if it's converse holds please provide suggestion how can I proceed to prove that, Thank you
Lastly, If a Function is uniformly continuous on an open interval say $(a,b),$ is it necessary that limit on endpoints exist.