I recently read the paper "Compactification of a Drinfeld Period Domain over a Finite Field" by Pink and Schieder. (link to the paper)
I am confused about two statements appearing in this paper:
(1) removing all proper $\mathbb{F}_q$-rational linear subspaces from $\mathbb{P}_{\mathbb{F}_q}^{r-1}$ (line 1~3 on p.202);
(2) $\mathbb{P}_{\mathbb{F}_q}^{r-1}\setminus\{ \text{union of all} \ \mathbb{F}_q\text{-rational hyperplanes} \}$ (the first paragraph under Theorem 1.10, p.205).
About the first statement, I cannot understand what a $\mathbb{F}_q$-rational linear subspace is. Since $\mathbb{P}_{\mathbb{F}_q}^{r-1}$ is not a vector space, it cannot have "linear subspace", right? So, what is the definition of a $\mathbb{F}_q$-rational linear subspace?
As for the second one, I think that $\mathbb{P}_{\mathbb{F}_q}^{r-1}\setminus\{ \text{union of all} \ \mathbb{F}_q\text{-rational hyperplanes} \}=\varnothing$. The definition of a $\mathbb{F}_q$-rational hyperplane in $\mathbb{P}_{\mathbb{F}_q}^{r-1}$ shall be the zero locus of a non-constant homogeneous polynomial $f\in \mathbb{F}_q[X_1,\cdots,X_r]$. However, every point in $\mathbb{P}_{\mathbb{F}_q}^{r-1}$ must lie on some $\mathbb{F}_q$-rational hyperplane. For example, let $[a_1:\cdots :a_r]\in \mathbb{P}_{\mathbb{F}_q}^{r-1}$. If there exits $i\in \{ 1,2,\cdots,r \}$ such that $a_i=0$, then $[a_1:\cdots :a_r]\in \{ X_i=0 \}$; otherwise, $[a_1:\cdots :a_r]\in \{ a_2X_1-a_1X_2=0 \}$.
It seems that I have misunderstood something, but I cannot figure it out.