Is a proof system with the single rule of inference {}⊢ φ for all φ sound, complete, both, or neither?
I think it is sound but I feel like there is a caveat, am I wrong?
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Soundness means intuitively that it can't prove any false things; does the rule you've described look sound? Put another way, does it let you deduce something from ${}$ that you shouldn't be able to? – Noah Schweber Dec 16 '19 at 22:14
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Thank you very much for your explanation! You put me on the right track :) – Dezmond Dec 17 '19 at 18:46
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It's complete if anyone interested...
Dezmond
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This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post. - From Review – Badam Baplan Dec 16 '19 at 23:02
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