Find a formula for $\displaystyle \int _0 ^1 x^k(\ln x)^m dx$ that works for all positive integers $k$ and $m$. Use integration by parts $m$ times with $k$ fixed.
-
3Have you done as told? Where did you get stuck? – vonbrand Apr 01 '13 at 02:37
-
2Could you please use $\LaTeX$ and a more descriptive title? – Potato Apr 01 '13 at 02:38
-
1@Amzoti, I don't think your title accurately reflects the question. Perhaps it should be something like "Evaluating $\int_0^1 x^k(\ln x)^m,dx$ for integer $k$ and $m$". – Antonio Vargas Apr 01 '13 at 02:45
-
@AntonioVargas: noted and updated! Regards – Amzoti Apr 01 '13 at 02:50
-
do you need to prove it or just find the formula? – DanZimm Apr 01 '13 at 02:51
-
yes I have done as told. I have set u= to lnx and du=to x^k. @DanZimm I need to just find the formula – Sam Apr 01 '13 at 02:57
-
@sam See my answer, guess it will help. – Pedro Apr 01 '13 at 03:46
4 Answers
Here is a start, use the change of variables $\ln(x)=-t$
$$ \displaystyle \int _0 ^1 x^k(\ln x)^m dx =\left( -1 \right) ^{m}\int _{0}^{\infty }\! {t}^{m}{{\rm e}^{-t \left( k+1\right) }}{dt}.$$
Now, you need another change of variables to relate the last integral to gamma function. I let you do it. Here is the final answer
$$ \left( -1 \right)^{m}\frac{ \Gamma(m+1) }{ (k+1)^{m+1} }=\left( -1 \right)^{m}\frac{ m! }{ (k+1)^{m+1} } . $$
Added: The other change of variables you need is $ (k+1)t=u $. Use it and compare with the gamma function.
- 47,431
-
3
-
-
-
2
-
1@MhenniBenghorbal: I don't understand why anyone downvoted this solution. I gave it +1. – Eric Naslund Apr 01 '13 at 16:02
-
@EricNaslund: Me either. That's why downvoting an answer without leaving a comment is misleading. I have been experiencing this on other correct answers. Anyways, thanks for your comment and upvoting. – Mhenni Benghorbal Apr 01 '13 at 17:59
-
@MhenniBenghorbal It seems to be $(-1)^{m+1}$ no ? Because we have $dx=-e^{—t}dt$. – Free X Apr 16 '14 at 21:32
-
@FreeX: It is correct. Have you worked out? Thanks for the comment. – Mhenni Benghorbal Apr 17 '14 at 00:39
-
1@MhenniBenghorbal Yes, yesterday (the upvote is mine). It works perfectly well and very slick! – Free X Apr 17 '14 at 15:09
-
Integrating by parts works out nicely:
Denote $$\varphi(k,m)=\int_0^1x^m(-\log x)^kdx$$
Note we need the minus on the $\log$, since it is negative over $[0,1]$!
Now take $$u=(-\log x)^k$$ $$dv=x^m$$ We get $$u'=-k(-\log x)^{k-1}\frac{1}{x}$$ $$v=\frac{x^{m+1}}{m+1}$$
Thus IVP says
$$\varphi(k,m)=\left.(-\log x)^k\frac{x^{m+1}}{m+1}\right|_0^1+\frac{k}{m+1}\int_0^1(-\log x)^{k-1}\frac{x^{m+1}}{x}dx$$
This gives a nice recurrence, after noting both limits on the first term on the right hand side vanish:
$$\varphi(k,m)= \frac{k}{m+1}\int_0^1(-\log x)^{k-1}{x^{m}}dx$$
that is $$\varphi(k,m)=\frac{k}{m+1}\varphi(k-1,m)$$
But then $$\varphi(k,m)=\frac{k!}{(m+1)^{k}}\varphi(0,m)$$
Thus, all we need to is to know what $$\varphi(0,m)=\int_0^1x^m dx$$ is. But you can do that, yes?
- 122,002
-
I seem to have swapped $k$ and $m$. Feel free to edit the question to match the OPs usage of $k$ and $m$. – Pedro Apr 01 '13 at 03:51
Here is a different approach using exponential generating series. Notice that $$\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\frac{z^{m}}{m!}\left(\int_{0}^{1}x^{k}\left(\log x\right)^{m}dx\right)=\int_{0}^{1}x^{k}\left(\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\frac{z^{m}}{m!}\left(\log x\right)^{m}\right)dx$$ $$=\int_{0}^{1}x^{k+z}dx=\frac{1}{z+k+1},$$ and the right hand side has the expansion
$$\frac{1}{k+1}\cdot\frac{1}{1+\frac{z}{k+1}}=\frac{1}{k+1}\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{j}}{\left(k+1\right)^{j}}z^{j}.$$ Comparing coefficients, we find that $$\int_{0}^{1}x^{k}\left(\log x\right)^{m}dx=\frac{m!(-1)^{m}}{(k+1)^{m+1}}.$$
- 72,099
Considering the function $f(a)=\int_0^1x^adx=\frac{1}{a+1}$ now doing differentiation under integral sign of $f(a)$ wrt $a$, $m$ times we have $f^{m}(a)=\int_0^1x^a(lnx)^mdx=\frac{(-1)^mm!}{(a+1)^{m+1}}$ now put $a=k$ we get $f^{m}(k)=\int_0^1x^k(lnx)^mdx=\frac{(-1)^mm!}{(k+1)^{m+1}}$
-
@AnivMazumber You can format $\ln x$ like this: \ln x. You might also consider putting your Latex in double dollar signs ('$$ $$') to make the expressions bigger. – Toby Mak Jul 16 '18 at 11:00