Here is the problem:
Prove that the family $\frac{x^2}{a^2+ \lambda}+ \frac{y^2}{b^2+\lambda}=1$ with $-a^2< \lambda < -b^2$ is orthogonal to the with family $\lambda > -b^2>-a^2$.
In particular I seek a solution via complex analysis ( so no geometric arguments etc.).
Therefore, I assumme we will want to make use of the following fact:
For $f(x,y)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$ analytic, the families $u(x,y)=\alpha$ and $v(x,y)= \beta$ are orthogonal.
The obvious choice of $u(x,y)$ and $v(x,y)$ doesn't seem to work as the Cauchy-Riemann equations won't be satisfied.
If anyone could help me out here that would be great. Many thanks.
EDIT: On second thought, having been reminded of the equality sign, I think the obvious choice does work. That is, let $u(x,y) = \frac{x^2}{a^2+ \lambda}+ \frac{y^2}{b^2+\lambda}=1$ and $v(x,y)=\frac{x^2}{a^2+ \kappa}+ \frac{y^2}{b^2+\kappa}=1$, where $-a^2< \lambda < -b^2$ and $\kappa > -b^2>-a^2$. Then $f(z)=u+iv=1+i$ is clearly analytic and we get the desired result. The argument is a bit dodgy, but is something in that direction true?