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I can't find any example other than the zero map which may very well be because there isn't any other.

From Taylor's theorem, it seems obvious that the only possible example is the zero map, since the only power series with only zero coefficients is zero. Is this correct?

(The order of a zero is defined here.)

Stephen
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1 Answers1

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By the identity theorem, if two analytic functions $f$ and $g$ satisfy $f^{(n)}(z_0)=g^{(n)}(z_0)$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}_0$, then $f=g$ everywhere on $\mathbb{C}$. Hence, if $f$ has a zero of infinite order somewhere in $\mathbb{C}$, then $f\equiv 0$, since $f^{(n)}(z_0)=0=g^{(n)}(z_0)$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}_0$, taking $g$ to be the zero map.

csch2
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  • I think the identity theorem could be perhaps too strong as one might need this result to prove it. I think that Gerry Myerson's comment suffices though. – Maths Wizzard May 30 '23 at 16:08