Student here! Just reading Liebecks Introduction to pure mathematics for fun and I made an attempt at proving the total number of subsets of S is equal to $2^n$.
I realized that the total number of subsets of S is just:
$ \binom{n}{1} + \binom{n}{2} + \cdots + \binom{n}{n} + 1$
And so I put together the cool looking formula
$ \displaystyle \sum_{r=1}^n \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} = 2^n - 1$
But I have no clue how to approach proving this formula analytically. Any help?
So if I try a proof by induction:
$\displaystyle \sum_{r=1}^n \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} = 2^n - 1$
$\displaystyle \sum_{r=0}^n \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} = 2^n$
obviously true for $n = 1$:
$1 + \frac{1}{1!0!} = 2 = 2$
assume true for $n$, I could multiply both sides by $2$?
$\displaystyle 2\sum_{r=0}^n \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} = 2^{n+1}$
How could I go about proving that
$\displaystyle 2\sum_{r=0}^n \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} = \sum_{r=0}^{n+1} \frac{(n+1)!}{r!((n+1) - r)!}$