I am working on an exercise for my computability course. The question is stated as:
Is the following set
$\{x|\text{ whenever } y<y', \text{ if } \phi_{x}(y)\downarrow \text{ and } \phi_{x}(y')\downarrow \text{, then } \phi_{x}(y) \lt \phi_{x}(y') \}$ recursive, r.e. or none of them? Motivate your answer.
So, i intuitively think that it is neither.
To show this, I would first use Rice's theorem to show that the set (lets call it $A$) is not recursive, since it is extensional ($i \in A, \phi_{i} \simeq \phi_{j} \rightarrow j \in A$) and $A \neq \emptyset$ and $A \neq F_{comp}$ where $F_{comp}$ is the set of all computable functions.
In a second step, I would then check if $\overline{A}$ is r.e. and argue that according to Post theorem, $A$ can't then be r.e. too. This check leads me to the conclusion that $\overline{A}$ is not r.e. (which I would like to show by a reduction to ALL-HALTING).
So, in a third step (when $A$ is not recursive and $\overline{A}$ is not r.e.), I want to check if $A$ is r.e.: This, I would essentially do by showing that there can't be a computable function $$f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll}1 & f'(x,y,y') = 1 \text{ (this would check if } x \in A)\\ \uparrow & \text{otw.}\\ \end{array} \right.$$
that relies on $f'$ to be computable, since $f'$ is also reducable to ALL-HALTING (checking all pairs of $(y,y')$ for even one $x$ in the set would take infinite time).
Now, I am not entirely sure if this train of thought makes sense.. So I would be very thankful if you could point out if this is utter bullshit, somewhat ok for an informal argument or something inbetween.
Go easy on me, I am still learning the definitions commonly used in computability theory ;)