If a function $f(x)$ ($x$ being a vector) is linearly homogeneous in $x$ (i.e. $k^{\lambda}f(x)=f(kx)\:;\:\: \lambda=1$), then can it also be said to be concave in $x$?
In an answer to this other question, the answerer mentions that a function with degree of homogeneity greater than 1 ($\lambda>1$) is the "convex case". May I conclude that a homogeneous function with $0<\lambda<1$ is the concave case, and that functions with $\lambda=1$ are therefore not concave in $x$?
The motivation for this question is a seminal economics paper which asserts that a certain function is linearly homogeneous in a certain variable, say $w$, and then subsequently "proves" that the same function is also concave in $w$. I'm trying to understand in what sense these two things can both be true.
EDIT: In response to John Hughes' comment, here are the other stated properties of the function in question. Let this function be denoted $C(y, w)$, $y$ being a scalar and $w$ being a vector.
Property 1: $C(y,w)$ is a nonnegative function.
Property 2: $C(y,w)$ is positively linearly homogeneous in $w$ for each fixed $y$.
Property 3: $C(y,w)$ is nondecreasing in $w$ for each fixed $y$.
Property 4: $C(y,w)$ is a concave function of $w$ for each fixed $y$.
My question in this post is essentially "Don't properties 2 and 4 contradict each other?"
Each of these Properties is accompanied by a proof. The paper goes on to prove three more Properties:
Property 5: $C(y,w)$ is a continuous function of $w$ for each fixed $y$.
Property 6: $C(y,w)$ is nondecreasing in $y$ for fixed $w$.
Property 7: For every $w >> 0$, $C(y,w)$ is continuous from below in $y$.
The full treatment can be found on pages 4-6 here.