5

Basic definitions in question:

Let $M,N$ be smooth manifolds, and consider a smooth map $\phi : M \rightarrow N$.

The push-forward map is the map:

$$\begin{align} \phi_* : & \ TM \rightarrow TN \\ & \ X \mapsto \phi_*(X) \end{align}$$ $$\text{with} \ \phi_*(X)f = X(f\circ \phi) \ \forall f\in C^{\infty}(N)$$

The pull-back map is the map: $$\begin{align} \phi^* : & \ T^*N \rightarrow T^*M \\ & \ \omega \mapsto \phi^*(\omega) \end{align}$$ $$\text{with} \ \phi^*(\omega)(X) = \omega(\phi_*(X)), \ X \in TM$$


Easy to see that the image of a fibre over $p$, $T_pM$, of the tangent bundle $TM$ under the push-forward $\phi_*$ is contained in the fibre over $\phi(p)$ in the corresponding tangent bundle $TN$:

$$\phi_*(T_pM) \subseteq T_{\phi(p)}N.$$

However, it was also claimed that the pull-back of a generic covector $\omega \in T_{\phi(p)}^*N$ will be a covector $\phi^*(\omega) \in T^*_pM$, where I particularly emphasise the $p$ in $T^*_pM$.


The question:

Given that $\phi$ is not known to be injective, isn't it impossible for this definition to guarantee that a covector $\omega$ defined at $x=\phi(p)\in N$ will necessarily be pulled back to a covector at the point $p$ of $M$? Patently, if $\phi$ is not injective, there could exist $q\not=p$ with $x=\phi(p)=\phi(q)$ -- so would the pullback of $\omega$ lie in $T^*_pM$ or $T^*_qM$? Worse still, what does one do with covectors defined at points in $N$ that don't lie in the image of $\phi$?

But, if injectivity/surjectivity of $\phi$ is indeed the minimal requirement to have a well-defined pullback of this type, this would consequently impose constraints on the dimensions of $M,N$. This was certainly not discussed (although I can see this working better in the case of embedding a lower dimensional manifold in one of higher dimension, for example).

It's more a question of, what am I missing here? I note that this is a map between cotangent bundles as opposed to the spaces of sections of the cotangent bundles. Perhaps, this is an acceptable definition when acting on forms/covector fields? I stumbled upon this (Definition of pullback.), which states "This situation with forms is different. For differential forms the pull-back is well-defined even if the function is not injective." in the top answer.

2 Answers2

4

After some thought, I think this is the result of a muddling of two related notions of "pullback" -- one for pulling covectors back between fibres of the cotangent bundles and another for pulling covector fields between the spaces of smooth sections of the two cotangent bundles.

Generally speaking, $\phi^* : T^*N \rightarrow T^*M$ above is ill-defined as a map taking covectors to covectors without further restrictions on $\phi:M \rightarrow N$.

This is easily seen by taking a non-onto $\phi$, and considering $\phi^*((q,\omega_q))$, where $q\in N, \ q\not\in \phi(M)$ and $\omega_q \in T^*_q N$. Clearly, $\text{preim}_{\phi}(q) = \emptyset$ so there's no point $p\in M$ with $\phi^*((q,\omega_q)) = (p, \omega_p)$. Further issues of ill-definedness arise when $\phi$ is not injective, if we consider the pullback of a point-covector pair where the preimage of the "point" under $\phi$ contains at least two distinct points in $M$.


On the other hand, one can always select a point $p\in M$ and have a well-defined, smooth pointwise pullback map on cotangent spaces in the fashion defined above:

$$\begin{align} \phi^*_p : & \ T^*_{\phi(p)}N \rightarrow T^*_pM;\\ & \ \omega_{\phi(p)} \mapsto \phi^*_p(\omega_{\phi(p)})\\ \end{align}$$ $$\text{with} \ \phi^*_p(\omega_{\phi(p)})(X_p) = \omega_{\phi(p)} (\phi_{*p}(X_p))\ \forall X_p\in T_pM.$$

where I have been very explicit with the point-based dependence of all the objects concerned. From this, one can define a smooth and well-defined pullback taking covector fields (i.e. smooth sections of the cotangent bundle) on $N$ to covector fields on $M$.

Namely, let $\omega : N \rightarrow T^*N$ be a covector field on $N$. One can define a covector field on M using the pointwise pullback above:

$$\begin{align} \phi^*\omega : & \ M \rightarrow T^*M\\ & \ p \mapsto \phi^*_p(\omega_{\phi(p)}) \end{align}$$

Note, this map:

$$\begin{align} \phi^* : & \ \Gamma(T^*N) \rightarrow \Gamma(T^*M)\\ & \ \omega \mapsto \phi^*(\omega) = \phi^* \omega \end{align}$$ $$\text{with} \ (\phi^*\omega)(p) = \phi^*_p(\omega_{\phi(p)}) \ \forall p\in M$$

is a pullback between $C^{\infty}(M)-$ and $C^{\infty}(N)-$modules, but crucially not a pullback between the cotangent bundles $T^*M$ and $T^*N$ themselves.

Sidenote: Very cool that we can actually pull-back smooth covector fields. We have precisely the opposite issue when we consider the push-forward of smooth vector fields, where we have a smooth push-forward map between the tangent bundles but no smooth push-forward between vector fields. Is this the pay off for not having a smooth pullback between the bundles?

0

Observe that, from the linear algebra's point of view for any linear map $l:V\to W$ between vector spaces and a linear functional $f:W\to\mathbb R$, it makes sense to pullback it as $f\circ l:V\to\mathbb R$ without any other consideration.

janmarqz
  • 10,538
  • Yes, I understand this is simple enough for vector spaces, as there is no notion of different (co)tangent spaces at each point so my qualm never arises. However, this intuition fails me in the manifold case since the (co)tangent bundles on $M$ and $N$ are not vector spaces but are instead collections of vector spaces parameterised by points of the manifold - this parameterisation is exactly what is causing the breakdown in my understanding, but I'd like to understand why that isn't relevant. – TheoreticalConfusion Jan 09 '20 at 16:24