- Assune 1 AirPoints is equivalent to \$1.
- Assume for every \$100 spent on a particular AirPoints credit card, the credit card owner will earn 1 AirPoints
If a vendor charged a 2% surcharge to use the credit card, then a \$100 purchase would become \$102 -- and earn 1.02 AirPoints (or the equivalent of \$1.02). It feels like the credit card owner paid the \$2 surcharge to earn \$1.02, which is a loss of \$0.98.
Is the above correct? If so, does it mean that the credit card owner would always be at a loss if a vendor ever charged a surcharge?