At $C[0,1]$ we define the function $$d(f,g)=\int_{0}^{1}\vert(f(t)-g(t))(2f(t)+3g(t))\vert dt. $$ Is $d$ a metric on $C[0,1]$?
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1Isn't f(t) =2, g(t) =1 an obvious counterexample to the symmetry? – Boxonix Jan 11 '20 at 17:02
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It is not a metric, since there are two different functions $f,g$ such that $d(f,g)=0$
For example $$f(x)=3x,g(x)=-2x$$
TheHolyJoker
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@Kostas Please consider accepting one of the answers provided. How to accept an answer – TheHolyJoker Jan 15 '20 at 17:42
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Take $f \equiv 2, g \equiv -1$
Then $d(f,g) = \int_{0}^{1} 3 dt = 3$
But $d(g,f) = \int_{0}^{1}12dt = 12$
So is not symmetric
ZAF
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