Given $T\supset PA$ to be consistent and axiomatizable, I've been told that when $G\subset T$ is finite, and $\phi$ is a universal sentence, then:
($\star$) $PA\vdash ((Pr_G(\underline\phi)\wedge con_G)\implies \phi) $
I can see that $PA\vdash ((Pr_T(\underline\phi)\wedge con_T)\implies \phi) $ is true for universal $\phi$ which follows easily from the fact that:
($\star\star$) Given $T\supset PA$ to be consistent and axiomatizable, then $PA\vdash(\phi\implies Pr_T(\underline \phi ))$ for every existential sentence $\phi$
But I don't see why ($\star$) is true (if it even is true), since $G$ doesn't satisfy the hypothesis of ($\star\star$).
Any help is appreciated
Thanks!