How can we prove this using Cauchy's Integral? We know that $\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{inx} dx = 0$ for $n$ not equal to $0$, and is equal to $2\pi$ for $n=0$, how can we prove that $\int_0^{\pi/2} e^{inx} dx=0$ for $n \neq 0$
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1You can't prove it, because it's not true. – TonyK Jan 22 '20 at 13:00
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It can 0 for some values of n. But it is not general. – Jean-Claude Colette Jan 22 '20 at 13:02
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@CameronWilliams indeed, mea culpa – TZakrevskiy Jan 22 '20 at 13:04
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You know it doesn't take anything more than calculus to actually evaluate that integral... – David C. Ullrich Jan 22 '20 at 13:53