I asked this question here a fortnight ago and answered it myself after pondering on it. Answers are still very much welcome and appreciated there, my answer is just the best I could come up with. I took the vector $\mathbf{X}=(x_1,x_2,x_3)$, and the related $\mathbf{X^2}=(x_1^2,x_2^2,x_3^2)$, where the $x_t\in\Bbb R/\{0\}$ are not equal.
I could then obtain $\mathbf{V}=\mathbf{X^2}\times\mathbf{X}$ for the simple solution that $c$ solves $$\mathbf{V}\cdot(\mathbf{1}c-\mathbf{Y})=0$$
For clarity $\mathbf{1}$, $c$ and $\mathbf{Y}$ are defined in the question linked at the top of this question - that's the context of this related question
I think that $\mathbf{V}$ is injective, that is, no two $\mathbf{X}$ map to the same $\mathbf{V}$, but I have no idea how to prove this, the algebra seems to go round in circles.
Help would be appreciated - thanks in advance.