My class uses the book "The Art of Proof" by Matthias Beck and Ross Geoghegan. Proposition 1.12 states: Let $x\in\mathbb{Z}$. If $x$ has the property that for each integer $m$, $m+x=m$, then $x=0$.
The proof isn't shown in the book, but the proof in class went like this:
Let $x\in\mathbb{Z}$. Let $x$ have the property that for each $m\in\mathbb{Z}$, $m+x=m$.
If we choose $m=0$, then $x=0=x+0$, as $0$ is the additive identity.
There is a similar yet different Proposition 1.13 that states:
Let $x\in\mathbb{Z}$. If $x$ has the property that there exists an integer $m$ such that $m+x=m$, then $x=0$.
The proof went like this:
Let $x\in\mathbb{Z}$. Let $x$ have the property that there is $m\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $m+x=m$. Further let $m$ be this number.
$m+x=m+0$ by Axiom 1.2 (Additive identity)
$x=0$ by Proposition 1.9 (not important to the question)
I'm very confused as to why Proposition 1.12, using "for each", uses a specific $m$ while Proposition 1.13, which uses "there exists", doesn't make assumptions about $m$. Shouldn't it be the other way around? Doesn't "for each" imply a burden of proof for every integer while "there exists" means that there is at least one integer that fits the equation? I can't find any information about "for each" versus "there exists" in the textbook or online.