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By using integration by parts, I need to show for $$A = \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx} + \tanh x, \qquad A^{\dagger} = - \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx} + \tanh x,$$ that

$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi^* A^{\dagger}A\psi\;\mathrm dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}(A\psi)^*(A\psi)\;\mathrm dx $$

Where $\psi$ is a normalized wavefunction. I thought that this was the definition of the Hermitian conjugate of an operator $A$, but the problem asks for me to use integration by parts. I don't really see where the result is going to come from here, surely it is not messy calculation, since it is true in general, right?

I started by by integrating by parts, noting that the surface terms must vanish since $\psi$ is normalized, but after that I just get into a big mess...


I asked this question of Physics.SE and didn't get an answer. I then asked in the Maths meta if it would be OK for me to post the question here and I was told that it would be fine to do so, so here it is. Thank you.

user27182
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  • To clear up your confusion: You are essentially proving that the given $A^{\dagger}$ is indeed the Hermitian conjugate which is why you are establishing that the definition holds. – muzzlator Apr 06 '13 at 14:19
  • I see that, I just can't manage to do it... – user27182 Apr 06 '13 at 14:21
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    I'm having a go. I should have tried it myself firstly on paper before I ended up stuck after having typed up a whole load of latex. Let me try again on paper... – muzzlator Apr 06 '13 at 15:20
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    By the way, have you seen: http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/15821/weird-operator-and-wavefunctions ? I am going to go to bed, hopefully this helps. – muzzlator Apr 06 '13 at 15:42

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