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Suppose I have the relation:

$$XY = Z$$

I want to find the 'contribution' or share that $X$ and $Y$ makes to $Z$. So I ln both sides:

$$\ln(X) + \ln(Y) = \ln(Z)$$

We could divide by $\ln(Z)$, so I have

$$\frac{\ln(X)}{\ln(Z)} + \frac{\ln(Y)}{\ln(Z)} = 1$$

Is it correct to say $\frac{\ln(X)}{\ln(Z)}$ is somehow the contribution of of $X$ to $Z$?

amWhy
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