I'm just doing some revision on the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for Linear Algebra using this picture from my lecture notes:
The line:
'as a basic consequence of the dot product listed above, f(t) > 0 for all t as an element of the real numbers' has previously assumed that we assume that b is NOT the zero vector. This I understand.
What I don't understand if why no specification of a not being the zero vector is made. Surely if a was the zero vector, for t = 0, (a+tb) . (a+tb) = 0, and this would mean would mean that f(t) > 0 does NOT hold?
Am I missing something really obvious here?
Thanks for your help.
