A weird exercise that puzzles me a lot.
Let $f$ be a real-valued funcation defined on an open subset $O$ of $\mathbb{R}^n$, all of whose partial derivatives up to order $p$ are defined in $O$. $\partial_{x_{j_{1}}}\cdots\partial_{x_{j_{p}}}f:O\mapsto \mathbb{R}$ be continuous at $x^0\in O$, for arbitrary collections(with repetition allowed) of $p$ indices $1\leq j_1,\cdots,j_p\leq n$. Show $f$ is $p$-$th$ differentiable at $x^0\in O.$
In the case $p=1$, $f$ is (first-)differentiable at $x^0\in O$.From the definition of higher differentials,we say that $f$ is $p$-times differentiable at $x^0\in O$ on the premise of $f^{\left(p-1\right)}$ is defined on some neighbourhood of $x^0$ contained in $O$. Only just by the above condition , maybe $f^{\left(p-1\right)}(p\geq 2)$ is not defined on any neighbourhood of $x^0$ contained in $O$, let alone $f$ is $p$-$th$ ($p\geq 2$) differentiable at $x^0\in O$ . Are there any counterexamples here?
Definition
Let $O\subseteq \mathbb R^n$ be an open set,and let $f:O\mapsto \mathbb{R}$ be a mapping.Whenever $f:O\mapsto \mathbb{R}$ is (first-)differentiable in $O$,we can consider the first derivative of $f$, $i.e.$the mapping $f^{′}:O\mapsto \mathcal{L}(\mathbb{R}^n,\mathbb{R}),$which to $x\in O$ associates the differential $f^{′}(x)$ of $f$ at $x$. Suppose $f^{′}(x)$ is differentiable at $x^0$;that is ,suppose there is a linear map $\Lambda \in \mathcal{L}(\mathbb{R}^n,\mathcal{L}(\mathbb{R}^n,\mathbb{R}))$ such that $f^{′}(x)-f^{′}(x^0)=\Lambda(x-x^0)+o(x-x^0)$ as $ x\rightarrow x^0$,then we say that $f$ is twice-differentiable at $x^0$,denoted $\Lambda$ as $f^{"}(x^0)$. And so on,the definition of $f$ is $p$-$th$ differentiable at $x^0$,denoted as $f^{(p)}(x^0)\in \mathcal{L}(\mathbb{R}^n,\mathcal{L}(\mathbb{R}^n,\cdots,\mathcal{L}(\mathbb{R}^n,\mathbb{R}),\cdots))$ where there are $p$ iterated $\mathcal{L}^{′}s$, likewise.