In this paper, the authors examine a common differential equation model for the concentration of a drug in the blood.
In the paper, they begin with the following expression
$$ \mu(t)=\frac{D k_{a}}{V\left(k_{a}-k_{e}\right)}\left\{\exp \left(-k_{e} t\right)-\exp \left(k_{a} t\right)\right\} $$
They then collect some terms
$$\mu(t)=D \exp \left(\beta_{0}+\beta_{1} t\right)\left[1-\exp \left\{-\left(k_{a}-k_{e}\right) t\right\}\right]$$
With $\beta_{0}=\log \left\{k_{a} /\left[V\left(k_{a}-k_{e}\right)\right]\right\} \text { and } \beta_{1}=-k_{e}$
And finally make the leap saying that this can be modeled using
$$\mu_{i j}=D_{i} \exp \left(\beta_{0}+\beta_{1} t_{i j}+\beta_{2} / t_{i j}\right)$$
This last part is where they lose me. I'm certain they make some approximation, but it isn't clear what approximation is made.
Can anyone shed some light onto how that last jump was made?