I have asked similar questions here, but I still don't understand the following:
If I have a metric e.g. $$d(x,y) = |x^3 -y^3|$$ why is translation invariance and homogeinity preventing me from simply defining the norm as $$||x|| = d(x,0)$$?
I have asked similar questions here, but I still don't understand the following:
If I have a metric e.g. $$d(x,y) = |x^3 -y^3|$$ why is translation invariance and homogeinity preventing me from simply defining the norm as $$||x|| = d(x,0)$$?
Let $a \in \mathbb{R}.$ Then by your definition $$ \lVert ax \rVert = d(ax, 0) = |a^3 x^3| = |a|^3 |x^3| = |a|^3 d(x, 0) = |a|^3 \lVert x \rVert, $$ but we need $\lVert a x \rVert = |a| \lVert x \rVert,$ which clearly doesn't hold for all $a$.
Then it's by definition not a norm.
– blat Feb 29 '20 at 12:41