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I got stuck on a problem recently which apparently leads to bizarre conclusions..

Let $a_1=1$, and $a_n=n(a_{n-1}+1)$ for all $n={2,3,...}$ Define $$P(n)=\Biggl(1+\frac{1}{a_1}\Biggl)\Biggl(1+\frac{1}{a_2}\Biggl)...\Biggl(1+\frac{1}{a_n}\Biggl)$$

Compute: $$\lim_{n\to\infty}P(n)$$ The way I did it was..i simplified $P(n)$ to get $P(n)=\frac{a_{n+1}}{(n+1)!}$

Now, rearranging the expression I got $$\frac{1}{n}=\frac{a_{n-1}+1}{a_n}$$ Let $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=\Delta$, then taking the limit as n$\to\infty$ of the above expression gives $0=\frac{\Delta+1}{\Delta}$ leading to $\Delta=-1$ but clearly, $\{a_n\}$ is an increasing sequence..where am I wrong?

This line of reasoning also leads to the required limit being 0..which again is obviously wrong..

Edit:I want to know what's wrong in what I've done..and I haven't seen this approach elsewhere. I know there are solutions to this already on this website..but the approach there is different..

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$a_n >n$ for all $n$ so $a_n$ does not converge to a finite limit $\Delta$. Your mistake is in assuming that $\Delta$ is finite.