The Fourier series of $x$ is $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 2(-1)^n\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}$$ I can see that the series does not converge pointwise to x in $x=\pi$ My question is: what happen in $[0,a]$ when $a<\pi$ ,my intution says that we should get uniform convergence, but i cant prove that is true.
For general, what can we say about uniform convergence of Fourier series of a function which is continuous, the derivative continuous but $f(\pi) \neq f(-\pi)$ in $[0,a]$ when $a<\pi$ ?
What about this specific case? I did not succeed to determine if there is a uniform convergence.
I am interested in this question because I tried to calculate the Gibs phenomenon in the function $-1+x$ at $[0,\pi] $and $1+x$ at $ [-\pi,0]$ We know that the Gibs phenomenon in the function 1 occur at $\pi /2n $ so because $x$ is a nice function, I think that the Gibs phenomenon of the given function above occur in $\pi /2n $. So, if the Fourier series of x uniform convergence, then that should be true.