Let $m$ be a probability measure on $Y \subseteq \mathbb{R}^p$, so that $m(Y)=1$.
Consider a function $f: \mathbb{R}^n \times Y \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$, continuous on the first arguments, measurable in the second. Assume that $f(0,y) = 0$ for all $y \in Y$, and that there exists a neighborhood $\mathcal{X}$ of $0$ such that $\mathbb{E} \left[ \max_{x \in \mathcal{X}} f(x,\cdot) \right]$ is finite.
Consider the discrete-time stochastic process $$ x_{k+1} = f(x_k,y_k), \ k = 0, 1, ..., $$ with $x(0) = x_0 \in \mathbb{R}^n$, and with $y_k \in Y$ random variable associated to the probability measure $m$. The random variables $y_0, y_1, ...$ are i.i.d.. So, for instance, the expected value of each $y_k$ is $\mathbb{E}(y_k) := \int_Y y m(dy)$.
We study the "attractivity" of the origin.
Assume that for all $\epsilon>0$ and $\lambda \in (0,1)$ there exists integer $K>0$ such that
$$ \mathbb{E} \left[ \mathbb{1}_{ \epsilon \mathbb{B} }( x_K ) \right] \geq 1-\lambda. $$
In other words, for $k$ big enough the process $x_k$ reaches a neighborhood of $0$ with probability $1$.
Under these assumptions, I am wondering if also for the non-stochastic process $$x_{k+1} = \mathbb{E} \left[ f(x_k,y_k) \right], \ k=0,1,..., $$ the origin is attractive, namely that for all $\epsilon>0$ there exists integer $K>0$ such that $x_K \in \epsilon \mathbb{B}$: $$ \mathbb{1}_{ \epsilon \mathbb{B} }( \mathbb{E} \left[ x_K \right] ) = 1.$$
Comment. The above question relies on relations between the asymptotic stability in probability and asymptotic stability of the averaged process. The setting is similar to this one.