I am trying to solve a problem from a Dartmouth textbook (https://math.dartmouth.edu/~prob/prob/prob.pdf) Chapter 4.1 Ex 53.
Disclaimer: I am not a student. I am just studying some probability questions from the text book.
Here is the question:
The registrar is carrying John and Mary’s registration cards and drops them in a puddle. When he pickes them up he cannot read the names but on the first card he picked up he can make out Mathematics 23 and Government 35, and on the second card he can make out only Mathematics 23. He asks you if you can help him decide which card belongs to Mary. You know that Mary likes government but does not like mathematics. You know nothing about John and assume that he is just a typical Dartmouth student. From this you estimate:
P (Mary takes Government 35) = .5
P (Mary takes Mathematics 23) = .1
P (John takes Government 35) = .3
P (John takes Mathematics 23) = .2
Assume that their choices for courses are independent events. Show that the card with Mathematics 23 and Government 35 showing is more likely to be Mary’s than John’s. The conjunction fallacy referred to in the Linda problem would be to assume that the event “Mary takes Mathematics 23 and Government 35” is more likely than the event “Mary takes Mathematics 23.” Why are we not making this fallacy here?
Here is the solution from the manual:
We assume that John and Mary sign up for two courses. Their cards are dropped, one of the cards gets stepped on, and only one course can be read on this card. Call card I the card that was not stepped on and on which the registrar can read government 35 and mathematics 23; call card II the card that was stepped on and on which he can just read mathematics 23. There are four possibilities for these two cards. They are:
Card I Card II Prob. Cond. Prob.
Mary(gov,math) John(gov, math) .0015 .224
Mary(gov,math) John(other,math) .0025 .373
John(gov,math) Mary(gov,math) .0015 .224
John(gov,math) Mary(other,math) .0012 .179
In the third column we have written the probability that each case will occur. For example, for the first one we compute the probability that the students will take the appropriate courses: .5 × .1 × .3 × .2 = .0030 and then we multiply by 1/2, the probability that it was John’s card that was stepped on. Now to get the conditional probabilities we must renormalize these probabilities so that they add up to one. In this way we obtain the results in the last column. From this we see that the probability that card I is Mary’s is .597 and that card I is John’s is .403, so it is more likely that that the card on which the registrar sees Mathematics 23 and Government 35 is Mary’s.
My question:
It seems like the solution calculates the Probability of "Other" by
Prob(John takes other) = 1 - Prob(John takes gov) - Prob(John takes math) = 1 - 0.3 - 0.2 = 0.5
See row 2: Mary(gov,math) John(other,math), this is calculated as 0.5*0.1*0.5*0.2 / 2 = 0.0025
This subtraction above implies "John takes gov" is exclusive from "John takes math". But later they are multiplying Prob(John takes gov)*Prob(John takes math) to get the joint probability. I find this problem/solution not making sense.
What do you guys think? Alternatively, how would you best understand the solution to this question to make the most sense out of it?