I claim that:
$$\sum_{i=0}^{x-1} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!} \sim 2^x$$
To prove this, I am required to show that:
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\sum_{i=0}^{x-1} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!}=1 \iff \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\bigg(\sum_{i=0}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!}-\sum_{i=x}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!}\bigg)=1$$
We know by the Taylor series for $e^x$ that:
$$\sum_{i=0}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!}=e^{x \ln{2}}=2^x$$
Now, we are required to show:
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\bigg(2^x-\sum_{i=x}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!}\bigg)=1 \iff \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\sum_{i=x}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!}=0$$
Note that for any $y \geqslant x$, we have:
$$\frac{(x\ln{2})^{y+1}}{(y+1)!} \div \frac{(x\ln{2})^y}{y!}=\frac{x\ln{2}}{y+1}<\ln{2}$$
Thus, we can use a geometric progression to bound the sum:
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\sum_{i=x}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!} \leqslant \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\sum_{j=0}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^x}{x!} \cdot (\ln{2})^j=\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x} \frac{(x\ln{2})^x}{x!} \cdot \frac{1}{1-\ln{2}}$$
We now use Stirling's Formula:
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\sum_{i=x}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!} \leqslant \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x} \frac{(x\ln{2})^x \cdot e^x}{\sqrt{2\pi} \cdot x^{x+1/2}} \cdot \frac{1}{1-\ln{2}}$$
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\sum_{i=x}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!} \leqslant \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{(e\ln{2})^x /2^x}{\sqrt{2\pi} \cdot x^{1/2}} \cdot \frac{1}{1-\ln{2}}=0$$
since $\frac{e \ln{2}}{2}<1$. Now, it is obvious that
$$0 \leqslant \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\sum_{i=x}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!}$$
since all the terms are positive. By Squeeze Theorem:
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{2^x}\sum_{i=x}^{\infty} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!}=0$$
Hence, we have proved out conclusion:
$$\sum_{i=0}^{x-1} \frac{(x\ln{2})^i}{i!} \sim 2^x$$