Let $X$ be a topological space, and $f : X \times [0, 1] \to X$ be a strong deformation retraction from $X$ to $X' \subset X$. Does it hold that for each $x \in X$ and $t \in [0, 1]$,
$$f(f(x, t), 1) = f(x, 1)$$
?
This property does not hold for deformation retractions in general. For example, let $X = X' = [0, 1]$, and $f(x, t) = (1 - t + t^2)x$. Then $f$ is continuous, $f(x, 0) = x$, and $f(x, 1) = x \in X'$; i.e. $f$ is a deformation retraction from $[0, 1]$ to itself. However, $f(f(1/2, 1/2), 1) = f(1/2, 1/2) = 3/8$ while $f(1/2, 1) = 1/2$.
A strong deformation retraction from $X$ to $X' \subset X$ is a continuous function $f : X \times [0, 1] \to X$ such that for each $x \in X$, $x' \in X'$ and $t \in [0, 1]$,
$$f(x, 0) = x,$$ $$f(x, 1) \in X',$$ $$f(x', t) = x'.$$