Your approach works! (Though in case 2 you should make clear you only need to have at least one of $\limsup,\liminf$ being either $\pm\infty$, and in case 3 you should emphasize that the finiteness of the $\limsup,\liminf$ is important, and explain why these are two limit points.)
It sounds like you're not sure how to show that one of $$\limsup = \liminf, \qquad \{\limsup,\liminf\}\cap\{\pm\infty\} \neq \emptyset, \qquad \infty > \limsup > \liminf > -\infty$$ holds? There's not much to say here; this is just a property of two numbers guaranteed to lie in $\mathbb{R}\cup\{\pm\infty\}$ with one larger than the other.
If proving the equivalence is the issue, then note that e.g.
1) $x_n \to x$ holds iff $\limsup x_n = \liminf x_n = x$.
2) A sequence is unbounded iff you cannot choose finite upper and lower bounds, which holds iff the $\limsup,\liminf$ are bounded.
3) As I say above, in this case note that holding $\limsup,\liminf$ apart means that there are infinitely many points (arbitrarily late in the sequence, since the $\lim$ bit comes into play) near these two points, so they are limit points.