I'm looking for a contradiction or a proof.
Suppose we have the following inequality:
$a\cdot j \leq b \cdot h$
Where $a,b,j,h \in \mathbb{N}$.
We now replace $a$ with $a_{1}$ and $b$ with $b_{1}$, where $a_{1}, b_{1} \in \mathbb{N}$. We also have the following situation:
- $a_{1}\leq a$
- $b_{1}\leq b$
- $b-b_{1}\leq a-a_{1}$
Can we then deduce that $a_{1}\cdot j \leq b_{1} \cdot h$ is true?
For instance:
$4\cdot 6 \leq 7 \cdot 5$
In this case $a = 4, b=7$. We now replace $a$ with $a_{1} = 3$ so $a - a_{1} = 1$. Since $b-b_{1}\leq a-a_{1} = 1$ we have $b_{1}\in\lbrace 6,7 \rbrace$. In both cases:
- $3\cdot 6 \leq 7 \cdot 5$
- $3\cdot 6 \leq 6 \cdot 5$
The inequality with the replacements of $a,b$ is true.